Is The Bible Divided?
When Christ mentioned "the law and the prophets", was He making a distinction between the two, and ignoring what men have labeled, "the writings"? Are there actually three divisions in scripture?
"The law, the prophets and the writings." . . . . says who?
You may have heard someone refer to the Bible, or more specifically the Old Testament, as, "the law, the prophets and the writings". Is one-third of the Old Testament, prophecy? Actually, the phrase, "the law, the prophets and the writings" is not even scriptural. It is a perversion of Christ's statement in Luke 24:44, "...These are the words which I spoke unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me." (KJV throughout). The Greek word for "psalms" here is psalmos (Strong's 5568), meaning "a set piece of music, i.e. a sacred ode." More specifically it means a Hebrew song, as opposed to a secular song or even other religious songs (see Strong's Greek 5567, 5603 and 5215). As we saw *in the previous article, the Psalms were written by "prophets" and contain "prophecies".
*[See Prophecy, Well Done?, Over Done? or Half-Baked?]Christ used the word, "writings" (Greek, gramma, 1121) only once, in John 5:47, in reference to the books of Moses, which He also called "the law" in Luke 24:44, above. The word gramma, translates as "a writing, i.e. a letter, note, epistle, book, etc; plural (translates as) learning; (or)...scripture." This is the only instance in which the word "writings", is used in the Bible and Christ used it to refer to the books of Moses, which is the "law".
Just as the Bible was not originally written in chapters and verses, but was later subdivided by men, so have men attempted to separate and categorize the books of the Bible into divisions. The term used by Christ and the apostles was, "the law and the prophets" (Mat. 5:17, 11:13, 22:40, Acts 24:14, Rom. 3:21), except for John 5:47, where Christ adds, "the psalms". The book of Psalms does not constitute one-third of the Old Testament. In addition, it was written by "prophets" and contains prophecies. What about the other twelve books also commonly called by men, "the writings"? As we saw illustrated *in the previous article, all the books of the Bible are related to prophets and prophecies. All of these books also relate to the laws of God. That is so obvious as to not require proof here.
*[See Prophecy, Well Done?, Over Done? or Half-Baked?]
Does Christ imply a separation between "law" and "prophecy"? On the contrary, He said, "all the prophets and the law prophesied until John", (Mat. 11:13). He counts the "law" as prophetic! In Luke 24:44, He says, "..all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets and in the psalms, concerning me." Events written in advance are prophecy. He is saying that the "law", the "prophets", and even the book of Psalms, are prophetic books. In Mat. 5:16, He said that he came "to fulfill" something. Fulfill what? The "law", or the Prophets? He said that His coming fulfilled the law and the prophets. The separation and the conflict existed only in the minds of the people, primarily the Sadducean Priests (the Levitical Priesthood) which had no use for the Prophets. That imaginary division and separation still exists today.
If Christ and the Apostles didn't divide and separate the Bible into divisions, why do men? What would be the purpose? Could it be to de-emphasize the law, or to de-emphasize prophecy or both? Who would want to de-emphasize the law? Perhaps those who say it was "fulfilled" (done away) in Christ? Who would want to de-emphasize prophecy? Perhaps those who say it was "fulfilled" in Christ (and has no future fulfillment)? Why separate "the writings" as non-prophetic and non-legal? Could it be to diminish any references they make to the "law" and to "prophecy" so that they are considered merely "inspirational" or historical works, and therefore, non-threatening to mainstream doctrines? It would also make them appear of little or no value to us today. If we say that the law is "done away" or "fulfilled", and that prophecy is already fulfilled, (or way off in the future), and that the balance of the Old Testament is neither legal nor prophetic, but merely "inspirational" prose, poetry or history, then we have "taken away" from the messages contained therein and placed ourselves under a curse according to the One who inspired it to be written and preserved (Deu. 4:2, Rev. 22:18-19) .
Men have divided the Old Testament as follows:
I. The Law:
Genesis
Exodus
Leviticus
Numbers
Deuteronomy
II. The Prophets
A. The Former Prophets
1. Joshua-Judges
2. Samuel-KingsB. The Latter Prophets
1. The Major Prophets
Isaiah
Jeremiah
Ezekiel2. The Minor Prophets
Hosea
Joel
Amos
Obadiah
Jonah
Micah
Nahum
Habakkuk
Zephaniah
Haggai
Zechariah
MalachiIII. The Writings
A. The Poetic or Metric Books
Psalms
Proverbs
JobB. The Megillot or Festival Books
Song of Songs
Ruth
Lamentations
Ecclesiastes
EstherC. The Restoration Books
Daniel
Ezra-Nehemiah
Chronicles
This all looks so very neat and orderly. But what does it accomplish? Several things. First, it separates. It separates the "law" from the "prophets" and from the "writings" as if there is little or no connection. It's as though the books of the law are not prophetic (although Christ said they are). It's as though the prophecies are separate from the law (although Christ referred to them together and said He fulfilled both). And it's as though the "writings" have nothing to do with the "law" or the prophecies.Second, it divides. It divides the prophets into "former" and "latter" as if there is no connection and does not allow for "prophets" in the "latter days" as spoken of by Joel and in Revelation. The "latter" prophets are divided into "major" and "minor" based solely upon the size of the books with no regard to whom they are addressed, or whether they are only historical now, or still prophetic (of future events).
The third thing accomplished is that it diminishes. It diminishes the value of the books of the law and of the prophets by suggesting that they do not relate to each other and that so-called "inspirational only" books are of more relevance than the law or the prophets.
How can one separate the books of Moses, called the "law", from Moses, who was called a "prophet"? Which of the other prophets did not write about the breaking of God's laws?
Is prophecy over-emphasized by some? Certainly, that is true for the student who is preoccupied with the events of the "end of this age" to the detriment of his growth as a follower of Christ. It is also true for the teacher who concentrates on aspects of prophecy, to the exclusion of the principles of spiritual growth.At the same time, we need to understand and keep in mind that 51 of the Bible's 66 books were written by people called prophets, or who made prophetic statements or had visions or dreams inspired by God. Of course all scripture is inspired by God (2 Tim. 3:16). Fifty-seven of the books mention prophets, forty-nine contain prophecies and forty-seven show fulfilled prophecies. Finally, every single book of the Bible bears some relationship with prophets or prophecy.
All of the Old Testament points to Christ (Lk. 24:44) while the New Testament is concerned with His First Coming, His teachings and His future or Second Coming.
Christ is called a Prophet (Deu. 18:15,18). He is a Major Prophet and the only Prophet who was dead and is alive.To set prophecy aside, as so-called "religious hobbyism", requires that we ignore the entire Bible and that results in one's being spiritually "under-done" or "un-done" or "half-baked". Prophecy, when read and taught in the context of all 66 books, can be "well-done", and need not be considered "over-done".
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: (1 Tim. 3:16).
And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. . . . (Gen.2:31).
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