TRANSLATION OF ISAIAH 49:1-13
1 Hear me O islands,
and pay close attention you people from afar.
From the womb the LORD called me.
From my mother’s womb He has known me.
2 And he has made my mouth like a sharp sword;
in the shadow of His hand He has hid me;
and he has made me a choice arrow;
and in his case of arrows he has hidden me.
3 And he said to me, "You are my servant, O Israel, in whom I will be glorified."
4 Then I said, "In vain I have labored for nothing,
and in vain I have wasted my strength.
But my judgment is with the LORD
and my work with my God."
5 And now says the LORD
who formed me from the womb to be his servant
to bring Jacob back to him
so that Israel might be gathered to him.
For I am glorified in the sight of my LORD,
and my God has been my strength.
6 And he said, "It is a light thing that you should be my servant
to raise up the tribes of Jacob
and to restore the preserved ones of Israel;
I will also make you a light to the Gentiles
that you may be my salvation to the end of the earth.
7 Thus says the LORD, the Redeemer of Israel, his Holy One,
to the despised one,
to the one hated by the nation,
to the servant of rulers,
"Kings will see and arise;
princes will also worship
because of the LORD, who is faithful, the Holy One of Israel, who has chosen you."
8 Thus says the LORD, "In an acceptable time I have heard you,
and in the day of salvation I have helped you;
and I will preserve you and give you as a covenant to the people
to establish the earth, to cause to inherit the desolate heritages.
9 Saying to the captives, ‘Go forth to those in darkness, show yourselves.
They will feed along the roads
and all their pastures will be high places.’"
10 "They will not hunger or thirst,
neither will the heat or sun weary them.
For He that has mercy on them will lead them;
by springs of water and he will guide them."
11 "And I will make all my mountains a road,
and my highways will be exalted."
12 "Behold, these from far of will come;
and these from the North and the West
and those from the land of Sinim."
13 "O heavens, sing and be filled with joy;
O earth, rejoice. Break out in singing O mountains
because the LORD has comforted His people
and those who are afflicted He will have mercy on."
EXEGETICAL QUESTIONS FOR ISIAIAH 49:1-13
1. Where does the pericope begin and end, and what is the basis for that determination? How is it segmented?
The pericope begins in verse one and extends to verse 13. Though the passage speaks specifically of the "Servant" in vv. 1-6 and in verse 7, it is the salvation that the Servant brings that is also in view, and that extends to verse 13 where shouts of joy are proclaimed because of the LORD’s comfort and compassion on His people through His Servant. It is true that the Servant is spoken of specifically in vv. 1-6, and these verses in and of themselves could contain the whole pericope. However, the following verses obviously expound on the Servant and should be included within the pericope. The genre of vv. 1-12 is prophecy (1-6 is the Servant who will bring salvation; verse 7 is about the Redeemer’s rejection and then His honor due Him; vv. 8-12 speak of the land being restored to Israel); verse 13 is praise.
As for formal/rhetorical considerations within the pericope, verses 1-2 introduce one who is called by the LORD; vv. 3-9 each repeat a common root for "to say" rma with verses 10-12 giving a longer discourse of what is being said. As for thematic considerations the theme of salvation and deliverance not only for Israel but for the whole world appears to run through the entire pericope.
The pericope should be segmented as given in the Nelson Study Bible: vv. 1-6 as the Servant’s soliloquy; vv. 7-9: the LORD’s oracles to Him; vv. 9-12 as Isaiah’s elaboration; and verse 13 as a hymn of praise (page 1190).
2. What is the significance of the figures used in verse 2? Are the weapons described here figurative of destruction or of something else? If so, what? Does the use of the term hp here suggest a certain function or office for the servant here? If so, what?
There are many figures in verse 2: "…my mouth like a sharp sword" is a simile that compares a mouth with a sword. Keil and Delitzsch says this concerning the comparison: "…That he may overcome everything that resists him as if with a sharp sword, and sever asunder things that are bound up together in a pernicious bond" (Keil & Delitzsch Commentary on the Old Testament: New Updated Edition, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1996 by Hendrickson Publishers, Inc.); "In the shadow of his hand" is an anthropomorphism that portrays God as having an actual hand. Also in this phrase God is figured by things that pertain to the earth (Bullinger, 897), namely a shadow. Here He is a "shadow" which is called a "back side" in Exodus 33:20-23. Shadow in this instance is the same as God. "He has made me a select arrow…" is a metaphor much like the simile above. This expression, being like a sword in its scabbard, or a shaft in the quiver, is the Messiah, before His appearing, being hid with God, ready to be drawn forth at the moment God saw fit (Hengstenberg): also, always protected by God, as the arrow by the quiver (cf. Isa 51:16) (Jamieson, Fausset, and Brown Commentary, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft).
The significance of these figures is not of physical destruction. The mouth like a sword has to do with words that pierce one’s conscience. It is the actual mouth that will do the damage because it is the mouth that is being compared to the sword. When God pulled this person out of his quiver of arrows, so to speak, it would be to pierce the hearts with the word of truth, not a literal arrow. The use of hp here suggests a particular office for this coming servant, and it does not appear to be the military general many were expecting. His "mouth" would be his weapon – a mouth speaking the word of truth.
3. What makes the identification of the servant as Israel difficult in the context here? If he is not Israel, why is he called such? Is he a remnant (synecdoche of part or whole) or an ideal Israel (metonymy)? Are there terms in the passage that would exclude one or the other? If so, what are those terms and which interpretation is excluded?
Israel in this context is not about the nation as a whole. The whole context is about a singular person. Verse 2b,c,d speak of someone who is hidden. Israel is not hidden, not in Isaiah’s day during the time of his prophecy. The first option is that it might refer to Isaiah, but this sounds nothing like Isaiah as he was a prophet to the Jews and not a messiah for the Gentiles (v.6). The second option is that it could refer to the Jews as "the servant of God," in accordance with Isa 41:8, by whom he would be glorified in accordance with the declaration in Isa 44:23. This "servant" however, could not refer to the Jews as a whole but to an individual or, quite possibly, to the righteous remnant – the inner circle of the faithful Jewish servants of God. The final option might be the Messiah – or an ideal Israel. This rendering bodes well in the context and with the New Testament. However, the name "Israel" is never attached to the Messiah anywhere else in Scripture but only used of an entire nation of people (Barnes’ Notes, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft).
Albert Barnes in his commentary sites the following…
1. Lowth and Vitringa suppose that it is because the name, in its full import and signification, can be given only to him; and that there is a reference here to the fact recorded in Gen 32:28, where Jacob is said to have wrestled with God, and prevailed, and was, in consequence of that, called Israel. The full import of that name, says Lowth, pertains only to the Messiah, "who contended powerfully with God in behalf of mankind."
2. It is common in the Scriptures to use the names which occurred in the history of the Jews as descriptive of things which were to occur under the times of the Messiah, or as representing in general events that might occur at any time. Thus the names, Moab, Edom, Ashur, were used to denote the foes of God in general; the name of Elijah was given to John the Baptist (Hengstenberg).
3. In accordance with this, the name David is not infrequently given to the Messiah, and he is spoken of under this name, as he was to be his descendant and successor.
4. For the same reason, the name Israel may be given to him – nor as the name of the Jewish people – but the name of the illustrious ancestor of the Jewish race, because he would possess his spirit, and would, like him, wrestle with God. He was to be a prince having power with God (compare Gen 32:28), and would prevail. In many respects there would be a resemblance between him and this pious and illustrious ancestor of the Jewish people (Barnes’ Notes, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft).
This Israel "ra;P;t]a, òB]Arv,a}" (in whom I will be glorified) must be something other than the Israel living in the time of Isaiah. That Israel was rebellious, not bringing any glory to God. The verb in the hithpael here signifies that God will receive glory, so it is future, and it comes from a people and/or a Messiah who are/is righteous. In sum, the Servant appears to be the ideal Israel, a metonymy of adjunct. This ideal Israel’s role and function will be progressively developed throughout chapters 40-66 because of its role in bringing future glory to God through what the prophet records. However, Israel and the Messiah both have the same function – they were both supposed to accomplish a mission – the restoration of Israel. So, in this sense, the Messiah could be called Israel since His mission was basically the same as the nation as a whole.
4. How do you relate the two parts of v.4 to one another? What is the mood of 4a,b and the mood of 4c,d? What is the meaning of ÷ka ? of yfpvm ? of ytl[p ? How does what is said here relate to the issue of the identification of the servant? Are the terms here appropriate to the character of Israel as described as a servant elsewhere in Isaiah 40-66? Of a righteous remnant within Israel? Of an ideal Israel?
The mood of 4a and b is one of futility. The one speaking appears to feel as if he has wasted his time and efforts. The mood is down-trodden. However, like many psalms in the Bible, the mood of 4c and d is one of hope and a belief in God’s justice despite the feelings of frustration in the first part of the verse.
The meaning of ÷ka, though is can be a marker of emphasis (surely, truly, indeed) here it appears to be a marker of contrast, and this is reflected in the texts. According to the Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains [Logos] the definition is "only, but, yet, except, i.e., a marker of contrast (Job 32:8; Ps 31:23[EB 22]; 66:19; 82:7; Isa 49:4; Jer 3:20; Zep 3:7+), note: can be a strong contrastive; note: stronger in contrast than 421; note: there may be overlap in the verses and entries in different sources." It can also be a marker of result or outcome. The term fP;v]mi here has to do with judgment, decision, justice, etc. In this context it has to do with the servant having been rejected by those he takes his message to but receiving his judgment (of reward no doubt) from the LORD. The term hL;[uP] has to do with work that involves serious labor and/or the wages that go with that work. The latter two terms relate to the Servant in that he works and receives his reward or payment for his work. As for the first term, it appears that whether or not anyone listens to his message is irrelevant – his judgment comes from doing what it is he is supposed to do – bring salvation to the whole world. As for these terms being appropriate to the character of the Servant, Keil & Delitzsch say, "The Servant’s mishpât (i.e., his good right in opposition to all contradiction and resistance) and his ‘work’ (i.e., the result and fruit of the work, which is apparently in vain) are with Jehovah, and laid up with Him until the time when He will vindicate His servant's right, and crown his labor with success. We must not allow ourselves to be led astray by such parallels as Isa 40:10; 62:11. The words are not spoken in a collective capacity any more than in the former part of the verse; the lamentation of Israel as a people, in Isa 40:27, is expressed very differently" (Keil & Delitzsch Commentary on the Old Testament: New Updated Edition, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1996 by Hendrickson Publishers, Inc.). The terms do seem to be appropriate for Israel, the ideal Israel, and even Isaiah the prophet because each one is rejected but finds judgment (whether good or bad) from the LORD.
5. The meaning of ¹sea;yE /l laer;c]yIwÒ wyl;ae bqo[}y" bbe/vl] ("to bring Jacob back to him so that Israel might be gathered to him") and its relation to the overall context is crucial to the identification of the servant in this passage. What do these terms and phrases refer to, who does them, and how does that relate to what is said before and after?
These terms/phrases refer to the Servant. It is he who will accomplish this, but by the very nature of the term "servant" it can be seen that it is YHWH who is behind the whole endeavor to bring back Jacob and restore Israel. The very fact that Israel is to be restored answers the question of whether or not Israel is the actual "servant" in verse 3. If that were so, how could Israel bring Israel back unless the Israel of verse 3 were the ideal Israel, in which case this ideal Israel would have to bring the "lost Israel" back to the LORD. Verse 5 seems to promote the Servant as the Messiah or ideal Israel. It is he who will accomplish the restoration of Israel, which in this case will be the ideal Israel.
What is the relation of 5f to 5e? Of 5e to what precedes it in vv. 3-4? Verse 5f relates to 5e in that the Servant is glorified because God is his strength. God "has been" his strength, and he is glorified. This Servant gives all glory to God in his forming in 5b, so it makes sense that he is not glorifying himself, rather, it is the LORD who is his God whom he is glorified through. This sounds much like what Jesus prayed in John 17. I think this passage in Isaiah lines up very well with John 17 giving further evidence that it is Jesus who is the Servant being spoken of. Verse 5e relates to verses 3-4 in that it is the LORD who is glorified through the Servant. Verse 5e just seems to affirm this even in light of the supposed "failure" of the Servant in verse 4a and b. Even through this the LORD is glorified.
6. What is the relation of 6a-c to 6d-e?
The relation here has to do with the emphatic use of the "waw" in 6c (òyTit'nÒW). The emphasis has to do with the fact that the LORD is not content with just giving one thing, he plans to give more. The first have of the verse only sets up the second half of the verse making the Servant not just the servant to the Jews but to the Gentiles as well.
What is the relation of 6b-c to what precedes? This relation to the preceding context also points to the fact that it could not be Israel as the nation that acts as the Servant because the Servant is to raise up that Israel, and it can only be done by the Servant. This is attested by the hiphil use of the verb µwq in this verse ("to cause the tribes of Jacob to be raised up"), and the parallel usage of the hiphil for the verb bwv in Genesis 28:15 ("and will cause you to be brought back into the land"). Both verb stems attest to the fact that it is YHWH who is the one acting through the Servant.
The figurative use of the term r/a ("light") in verse 6d is "the light of instruction" (BDB, page 21) being used as a metonymy of effect (Bullinger, 560-61). This term is also used in this manner in Isaiah 42:6 and 51:4. The term yti[;WvyÒ ("my salvation") in 6e is defined by BDB as "salvation by God." In this context it is the Servant – the ideal Israel – who is God’s salvation to the ends of the earth. God is working through the servant to bring salvation not only to the Jews but also to the Gentiles. This term is used extensively in Isaiah (parallel passages include 33:2; 52:7-10; 59:11; 60:18). The LORD’s salvation extends to the end of the earth in the sense that it is not confined to the nation of Israel. His salvation goes outside of that people to all the peoples of the earth. The terms used are most appropriate to one unique person not only in the context of Isaiah 49 but also its fulfillment in the NT.
7. Are the phrases in 7c-d more appropriate to Israel, a righteous remnant within Israel, the prophet Isaiah or ideal Israel?
The phrases here point directly to an ideal Israel – the Messiah. As for who these kings and princes rise up to pay homage, it is this same Servant, the Messiah who is the fulfillment of the LORD’s promises (Isa 49:3,6), when He will be a light to the Gentiles.
Keil and Delitzsch say, "The person addressed here is the Restorer of Israel, the Light of the Gentiles, the Salvation of Jehovah for all mankind. When kings and princes shall behold Him who was once brought so low, delivered from His humiliation, and exalted to the glorious height of the work to which He has been called, they will rise up with reverence from their thrones, and prostrate themselves upon the ground in worship for the sake of Jehovah, as before Him who ('asher (OT:834) emphatic, utpote qui) is faithful, showing Himself sincere in His promises, and for the sake of the Holy One of Israel, in that, as is now made manifest, ‘He hath chosen thee.’ The fut. consec. particularizes the general motive assigned, and carries it still further" (Keil & Delitzsch Commentary on the Old Testament: New Updated Edition, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1996 by Hendrickson Publishers, Inc.).
8. What do the phrases ÷/xr; t[e ("a favorable time") and h[;WvyÒ µ/y ("day of salvation") refer to in the context of Isaiah 40-66? The former phrase refers to the time in which God turns His attention back to the nation of Israel and delivers them (it may also refer to the Jubilee in Lev. 25:8ff). The latter phrase expounds on the first in that the LORD is not just going to turn His attention to the nation, He is also going to deliver them through His intervention and aid. The only other passage in Isaiah where the time indicator is used with the term ÷/xr is in 61:2 where "the favorable year" (of the LORD) is spoken of ÷/xr;Atn"v]. The parallel term here is tn"v] meaning "an indefinite period of time" (BDB, 1040). However, the time the LORD has set is definite in His eyes, but the "year" here as a duration of time is not necessarily a literal time period. As for the usage of h[;WvyÒ ("salvation") here the actual salvation is not a New Testament salvation, rather, a saving from one’s enemies; in this case it also refers to the Jews being restored, saved as it were, to their holy city.
The verbs òytiynI[} ("I will hear you") and òyTir]z¾[} ("I will help you") are difficult to translate with regard to tense (I have translated them as future). The NIV, GW, TEV, NCV, and NLT translate them as future. However, the NRSV and REB see them as pasts while the Tanakh sees them as present perfects. Westermann (215) and Whybray (141) agree that they are perfect tense verbs ("I answer you") speaking of the past and the present and how God has answered and continues to answer their prayers. God has done this and will continue to do all of this for His chosen people. The future prophetic tense works in the context because of what God has done in the past, namely, preserve his people. The gnomic present works because God preserving His people is an ongoing, universal fact. He has done so since He created. Given the choices of verb tense here it seems ridiculous to be dogmatic. Each tense works, and each one is true of God because God is faithful, and He has chosen Israel (v. 7).
The phrase µ[; tyrib] ("covenant people") refers to the Israelites who were promised "land, seed, and blessing" (Gen. 15) by God unconditionally. These are God’s chosen people, and His covenant with Abraham was for the faithful. In this context the phrase could be interpreted "to be a covenant for the people" (NIV), "as a covenant to the people" (NRSV), "a covenant people" (TK). Oswalt says it is "covenant to the people" as "people" is regularly designated as Israel, and they have broken God’s covenant many times (NICOT). They are still God’s light, or covenant, to the world, and salvation through the Servant will come to Israel and to the Gentiles as well (v. 6). These "people" are "to establish" and to "apportion." Whybray points out that the subject of these infinitives is YHWH Himself rather than the exiles, for it is YHWH that prokmises to repopulate and restore the land of Palestine which has been left desolate as a result of the Exile (page 141).
What is said here seems most appropriate for the faithful remnant in Israel. The only light the covenant people give is the light of obedience and faithfulness to God. All of Israel did not accomplish this – only the faithful remnant. They are the ones who inherit the blessings of the promise made to Abraham. God’s promise to him was unconditional in that God would fulfill his promise, but conditional only to those of faith.
9. What figure(s) are presupposed in vv. 9c-11 and where have we met them before? What did they refer to? How does this relate to what has been said before? What is the "salvation" in view? When is it supposedly effected? How does what is said in verse 12 relate to this? Is this same kind of action referred to elsewhere in this passage? Where? In what terms? Where else is it referred to in Isaiah 40-66?
The figures in these verses are anthropomorphic in that they picture God as a shepherd watching over his flock. God’s people being the flock here represent zoomorphism – animal traits given to humans. Both of these figures have been seen in our study of Psalm 95:7 and in Psalm 23. As for this relating to what has been said in the previous context it seems to be saying that through the Servant God will "round up" His people from the four corners of the earth and lead them like a shepherd leads his sheep. In this case there will be no mountains and valleys because the LORD will make everything smooth, nothing to hinder our walk as we follow Him. The salvation in view here is a saving of the Jews and preserving them as a people. This salvation is supposedly effected when these Jews leave Babylon (48:10) to return from exile (Nelson Study Bible, page 1191). What is said in verse 12 relates to this because it expounds on the Babylonian captivity and speaks of Jews returning from all over the world. They will all come together, even the so-called "lost tribes" along with the Gentile Christians (spiritual children of Abraham). This is also spoken of elsewhere in Isaiah in 43:5-6; 48:1; 49:1).
10. How does verse 13 relate to the preceding? How is the verb µj'nI to be translated – as a present perfect, gnomic present, or a future (prophetic)? How is this verb used throughout Isaiah 40-66 and what does it often refer to? What then is the whole passage talking about?
This verse sums up the whole of what’s been prophesied in the Servant and the bringing of the LORD’s salvation. It appears quite common for Isaiah to introduce a song of praise on the announcement of any great and glorious truth, and to call on the heavens and the earth to rejoice together as in 42:10-11; 44:23 (Barnes' Notes, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft).
Keil and Delitzsch says, "In this return of the exiles from every quarter of the globe to their fatherland, and for this mighty work of God on behalf of His church, which has been scattered in all directions, the whole creation is to praise Him. In verse 13, ‘Sing, O heavens; and shout, O earth; and break out into singing, O mountains! for Jehovah hath comforted His people, and He hath compassion upon His afflicted ones.’ The phrase rinaah paatsach, like wªrineen paatsach (which occurs in Ps 98:4 as well as in Isaiah), is peculiarly Isaiah's (Isa 14:7, and several times in chapters 40-66). ‘The afflicted ones’ ('aniyyiim) is the usual Old Testament name for the ecclesia militans."
As for the verb tense here, K&D continue: "The future alternates with the perfect: the act of consolation takes place once for all, but the compassion lasts for ever. Here again the glorious liberty of the children of God appears as the focus from which the whole world is glorified. The joy of the Israel of God becomes the joy of heaven and earth. With the summons to this joy the first half of the prophecy closes; for the word t’mr, which follows, shows clearly enough that the prophecy has merely reached a resting-point here, since this word is unsuitable for commencing a fresh prophecy" (Keil & Delitzsch Commentary on the Old Testament: New Updated Edition, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1996 by Hendrickson Publishers, Inc.).
What is the whole passage talking about? Simply put, this entire passage is about God sending His Servant for the salvation of the world – Jews and Gentiles. Verse 13 closes with a song of praise to the God of that salvation.
11. Sentence Outline of Isaiah 49:1-13… (adapted from Barnes’ Notes, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft)
Overall Message: The Servant of the LORD is commissioned to go and gather all Israel and even the Gentiles in order to be a light to the world bringing salvation to all peoples.