1. What is your background in relation to the “keeping of the Lord’s Day?” Do you sometimes feel guilty for not keeping Sunday as a day of worship and rest?

Soteriology 404

THE SABBATH DAY

What is your background in relation to the "keeping of the Lord’s Day?" Do you sometimes feel guilty for not keeping Sunday as a day of worship and rest? My background for the Sabbath was that we were to go to church on Sundays. My parents told me it was a day of rest, but as a child that was the last thing I wanted to do. As an adult I do feel guilty when I don’t take the time to rest on Sunday, not because I believe it makes God angry. I just believe that we need one day per week to not work. God instituted this for us because we need to take that break.

What is the Sabbath? In Genesis 2:2 it is written that God rested on the seventh day after He had worked the previous six creating the heavens and the earth. Furthermore it is written in Exodus 20:8-11 that God expected the Israelites to observe a Sabbath day of rest in recognition of the fact that He worked six and rested on the seventh. The wording of this command gives great credence to the fact that God created the world in six literal days because He expected man to rest on the seventh day the same way He rested after having worked the previous six. There are two versions of the Ten Commandments given in the Pentateuch. The first is contained in , the second in . These are substantially and almost verbally identical, except that the reasons given for the observance of the fourth commandment are not the same. In Exodus the reason is based on one's obligations to God as the Creator . In Deuteronomy the reason is one's duty to others and the memory of the bondage in Egypt. This variation has led many to the belief that the original law was simply "Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy." It may, however, be the fact that the form as it stands in Exodus is the divine original, but that Moses in reviewing the law just before his farewell to his people added a fresh and fuller significance that the history of Israel suggested (from New Unger's Bible Dictionary).

To whom was it given and why? Exodus 31:12-17 explicitly says that this ordinance was given to Moses for the "sons of Israel." Nowhere does it say that this was to be for other nations. In Deuteronomy 5:1-3, 12-15 it is evident that God ordained all people and animals to observe a day of rest every seven days in accordance with how He Himself rested after working six. This was to be a pattern for man -- instituted as a divine command from God Himself. This was to be a sign between God and the Israelites in order that they remember that they were once slaves in Egypt.

Did saints (Adam, Noah, Abraham, Joseph, etc.) prior to the giving of the Law observe the Sabbath? If these men did observe a weekly Sabbath it is not recorded. There is no evidence biblically that they did, but this is not to say that they did not.

When is it first explicitly mentioned in the Bible? The first mention of the Sabbath is in Exodus 16 when the children of Israel gathered their daily portion of manna. On the sixth day they were to gather enough manna for two days so as not to work on the Sabbath.

During the inter-testamental period, the observation of the Sabbath was strongly emphasized by the Jewish religious leaders, so much so that they built "a fence around the Law" with many detailed regulations.

Did Jesus keep the Sabbath? In Luke 4:16 Jesus entered the synagogue on the Sabbath and read; in Mark 1:21 He entered the synagogue and began to preach; in Matthew 5:17-20 Jesus taught that He had no intention of abolishing the Law (of which keeping the Sabbath holy was part of) and that anyone who taught against any part of the Law was to be called least in the Kingdom of Heaven.

In the conflicts with the Pharisees concerning the Sabbath, in what ways did Jesus contradict the religious norms? In Luke 6:1-11 Jesus contradicted the so-called "laws of the Sabbath" by doing good. In one instance He allowed His disciples to pick, rub, and eat grain on the Sabbath; in another instance He healed a man on the Sabbath. He justified His actions by saying it was right to do good on the Sabbath and that He was "Lord of the Sabbath." In Luke 13:10-16 once again Jesus healed a woman on the Sabbath while teaching in the synagogue. In 14:1-5 Jesus healed another man who had dropsy, then questioned the Pharisees sitting with him on whether or not they would rescue an animal if need be on the Sabbath (something that was allowed under their law). In John 5:1-18 Jesus healed another man who was lame, lying beside the pool of Bethesda. In doing these "good deeds" Jesus makes it evident that doing these things was not only permissible but expected.

The first Christians were faithful Jews who worshipped in the Temple of Jerusalem (Acts 2:46; 5:42) and attended services in the synagogues (Acts 9:20; 13:14; 14:1; 17:1-2, 10; 18:4). Many were "zealous for the law" (Acts 21:20). The introduction of Gentiles into the church brought conflicts and radical change. In the edict of the counsel of Jerusalem, what was required of Gentile believers from OT law? From Acts 15:29 it is evident that the Sabbath was NOT one of the requirements. Rather they were told to "abstain from things sacrificed to idols and from blood and from things strangled and from fornication; if you keep yourselves free from such things, you will do well. Farewell." The lack of an edict to obey the Sabbath is significant because this edict comes from the earliest of church fathers. To them keeping the Sabbath was not part of how they were to conduct their Christian walk.

Normative teaching for the Gentile church is found especially in the NT epistles. In Romans 1:18-2:29, what is the difference between the basis of how God will judge the Gentiles versus the Jews? The Jews will be judged more harshly because they know the Law, but do not obey it. They judge those who do not obey it while they themselves fail to do so. The Gentiles on the other hand, though they do not have the Law, show that they have the Law written on their hearts when they obey the Law without actually having the Law. Reward and punishment will come to the Jew first then to the Gentile. Both, however, will be judged as one because the distinction with regard to punishment is non-existent.

To whom do the Ten Commandments pertain? As a part of the Law known as the moral law the Ten Commandments pertain to both Jew and Gentile. These laws are the laws that are not exclusive to the Jews because they are laws which are engrained in the hearts and minds of all men. These laws are not what brings salvation to men, rather they are simply guidelines by which we live morally. The Mosaic system was only a temporary expedient to achieve a given end, whereas the Ten Commandments are a statement of principles to continue for all time (from New Unger's Bible Dictionary). The Ten Commandments are unique because of the way they were delivered. The rest of the law was given by God through the lips of Moses, but these were spoken by God Himself and with an awful display of splendor and solemnity never before witnessed . It appears also that angels were active in the promulgation of the law ("holy ones," ; "angels," ). In addition, these laws were written by God's own finger and on durable tablets of stone .Still another fact marks the unique place of the Ten Commandments. The tablets of stone were put in the most sacred place in the world-- in the Tabernacle, in the "holy of holies," in the Ark of the Covenant. Thus they were plainly recognized as containing in themselves the sum and substance of what was held to be strictly required by the covenant.

In about 100 words summarize concisely Paul’s teaching concerning the Mosaic Law (Romans 10:4; 2 Cor. 3:6-18; Galatians 3:2-3, 10-13, 23-25; 5:1-16; Col. 2:13-14). Paul’s teaching concerning the Mosaic Law is easily summarized. Paul believed that obedience to any part of the Law meant being under obligation to obey the entire Law. But the Law according to Paul, something he lived his life up to the point of salvation striving to obey, was a curse. Anyone who felt the need to obey the Law in order to be justified was being led astray and had bought into another gospel which was really no gospel at all. Though Paul felt the Law had a purpose as a tutor he taught that the tutor was no longer needed now that Christ had died and been raised. Christ was the end of the Law and if He was the end of it then it no longer had any use to Christians.

Is there biblical justification for dividing the Ten Commandments (the moral law) from all the other laws (ritualistic, social, cultural, and political) which God gave to Moses? Explain. I think there is. Ritualistic, cultural, and political laws were laws expressly given to the Jews. These laws separated them from the pagans because they were given to Jews. Outsiders (Gentiles) were not to be judged according to the Jewish law. Jesus abolished the sacrificial law. All laws pertaining to sacrifice were fulfilled when He Himself made the ultimate sacrifice "once for all." There is no need to abide in the ritualistic and sacrificial laws. Social laws were done away with because salvation was offered to all by grace not through acts of social conduct. Furthermore, food prohibitions were done away with as Jesus declared all foods "clean" in the Gospels, as did Paul in Romans 14. The Ten Commandments on the other hand were a cross-over from OT to NT. Jesus, in the interview with the rich young ruler, gave a recapitulation of the commandments treating of duties to men ( f; ). He quotes the 5th, 6th, 7th, 8th and 9th commandments. The minor variations in the reports in the three Synoptic Gospels remind the student of the similar variations in and . Already in the Sermon on the Mount Jesus had quoted the 6th and 7th commandments, and then had gone on to show that anger is incipient murder, and that lust is adultery in the heart . He takes the words of the Decalogue and extends them into the realm of thought and feeling. He may have had in mind the 3rd commandment in His sharp prohibition of the Jewish habit of swearing by various things . As to the Sabbath, His teaching and example tended to lighten the onerous restrictions of the rabbis . Duty to parents He elevated above all supposed claims of vows and offerings . In further extension of the 8th commandment, Jesus said, "Do not defraud" ; and in treating of the ethics of speech, Jesus not only condemns false witness, but also includes railing, blasphemy, and even an idle word ( f). In His affirmation that God is spirit , Jesus made the manufacture of images nothing but folly. All his ethical teaching might be said to be founded on the 10th commandment, which tracks sin to its lair in the mind and soul of man (International Standard Bible Encyclopedia).

Do you think that the Ten Commandments stand as the moral code for the Believer today? In light of what Jesus has to say about them and in light of the moral character of these commandments I do believe that they stand as the moral code of conduct for every believer today.

What do the epistles specifically say, or seem to say, about the Sabbath? Romans 14:5-6 says that if one desires to keep the Sabbath he should do it to the Lord and have the proper motives; Galatians 4:9-11 views the Law and its regulations as putting unnecessary binders on people in order to be saved and continue in salvation. This passage promotes salvation by grace -- not through keeping the Law. Laws such as keeping the Sabbath in order to gain God’s grace seem to be what the Galatians were attempting to observe in order to maintain their salvation; Colossians 2:16, 20-23 seem to teach that keeping the Law is for the weak and uninformed. They were now to put those guidelines behind them and trust in Christ’s grace.
Generally early Christians worshipped on Sunday, the day of Christ’s resurrection (John 20:1), "the Lord’s Day" (Rev. 1:10), "the first day of the week" (Acts 20:7; 1Cor. 16:2) -- although extra-biblical evidence for widespread worship on Sunday comes only from the second century. When the fourth century Emperor Constantine forbade certain types of work on the Lord’s Day, Sunday began to take on Sabbath characteristics. This sabbatarian direction continued through the Middle Ages until Gregory IX in 1234 decreed as law that Sunday was the Christian Sabbath day of rest. Whereas the leading Reformers spiritualized the Sabbath command to include any day for rest and worship, Zwingli’s successor Johann Bulinger (1504-1575) was staunchly sabbatarian and most Reformation theology soon followed with strict rules on observance of Sunday. R. Gaffin asks, Is the Lord’s Day the Christian Sabbath? He argues "yes" and gives three reasons: 1) that the weekly Sabbath in a "creation ordinance," that is, based on the action of God in blessing, hallowing and himself resting on the seventh day at creation, before the fall...; 2) that the Sabbath commandment, because it is included in the Decalogue... is part of God’s enduring moral law; 3) that the writer of Hebrews teaches that the weekly Sabbath-sign points to the eschatological rest-order, anticipated by God already at creation and secured, in view of the fall, by the redemptive work of Christ, but which will not be entered by the people of God until Christ’s return (Hebrews 4:3-4, 9-11; 9;28).

Agree or disagree? I would agree with this view because it is Scriptural. The point is made well. I would want further clarification on what this "Christian Sabbath" means to this man. If it means having to keep it in order to show evidence of salvation then I would totally disagree with his stance. If, however, the point is being made that this "Christian Sabbath" is another way to be obedient to God through taking at least one day per week to rest and focus on Christ while fellowshipping with other believers then I am wholeheartedly for this position. Going further, "resting" means different things to different people. Some rest on their sofa with a book while others rest while playing golf. Preachers cannot rest on Sunday according to Pharisaical tradition because they work on Sundays. I would venture to say that God is not handing out demerits in heaven to those who do not obey some "Pharisaical" law made by men. God’s point is that men should rest one day per week. This "Christian Sabbath" is for man and his benefit.

Seventh Day Adventists cite passages like John 14:23-24 to insist that the "true Sabbath" (Saturday) is part of the commandments of God and of Christ for us. How would you respond? By comparing Scripture with Scripture I would respond with other Scriptures in order to shed light on the one they are using. In 1 John 3:22-24 John says that God’s commandment is to believe in His Son. All commandments seem to be summed up in this one command. In Romans 8:2-4 says that the Law is weak due to the flesh and instead of us walking by the flesh we should walk by the Spirit who indwells every believer. The law is not what we look to to help us -- it is the Spirit who guides now -- not the law; equally in 13:8 if we "love our neighbor" then the whole law has been obeyed, and thus fulfilled. There is no mention by Paul anywhere that obeying the Sabbath whether on Saturday or Sunday is expected of anyone. We trust in Christ, who is God, and we love our neighbor. The first command necessitates the second. These words are spoken by the Apostle Paul who, as evidenced in passages like 2 Cor. 2:17 to be commissioned by God. Now if Paul is commissioned by God wouldn’t it make perfect sense that Paul would admonish with great clarity the need for obeying the Sabbath? But he does not; instead he writes passages like the one in Galatians 5:4-6, 13-16 which admonish us to love our neighbor and not be in bondage to laws and regulations. These lead to judgments among the brethren and love falls between the cracks.

So what is your own conclusion concerning the Christian and the Sabbath? Should we "observe" the Sabbath (whether Saturday or Sunday)? Jesus said that the Sabbath is for man, not man for the Sabbath. I think that Christians should observe the Sabbath day but not for gaining some sort of merit with God. The rules and regulations surrounding the Sabbath day in the OT set up by the scribes and Pharisees were never intended in the original meaning. There is simply one day a week set aside for rest because God sees a need for that rest in all of our lives. It is for us, but it ultimately causes us to reflect at least once per week on God and what He has done and is doing in our lives. Traditionally this day has been on Sundays because that is the day our Lord rose from the dead. The early church celebrated it that way, and it has been the traditional day ever since. True, Saturday is the technical Sabbath day in the OT, but that administration changed following Christ’s resurrection. All that aside, it should not matter what day one deems as their own Sabbath. Taking one day a week to rest, reflect, and meditate on who God is what the entire issue is about.

Conversely, is it a meaningless commandment for today? And, supposing you serve in a place of leadership, how will you handle the issue in a church whose traditions are different from you convictions? I would stop short of calling anything God ordained as meaninglessness, but as a command to keep the Sabbath day holy I would say it is as meaningless as observing the Day of Atonement -- it is not required and not taught as a means of salvation or maintaining one’s salvation. As far as serving in a church whose traditions are different than my own, I can only take what I know of what the Bible teaches. If that church’s view differs from my own and is preaching a Sabbath day in order to be a Christian then I would teach why I differ from that position. Many people today are just ignorant of what the Sabbath is and what (or who) it is for.