['Aalim Network QR] Mut'a (Temporary Marriage) in the View of

[abbas@dircon.co.uk (Abbas Jaffer)]

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|       In the Name of Allah, the Compassionate, the All-Merciful       |\
|  Greeting of Allah be upon Muhammad and the pure members of his House |\
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Salamun Alaykum,

The following question was kindly answered by Mulla Asghar

Regards

Abbas Jaffer
Acting Moderator - 'Aalim Network.

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Question:

I have a question concerning "mut'a". This issue has been discussed about
many times here, and accoridng to what I have understood, one (a male
muslim) can temporarily marry to a non-muslim female as long as she is
Christian or Jew( and of course or Muslim!). My question is, knowing that in
Judaism and Christianity, this kind of marriage is not allowed, so what
happens is the female party is commiting practically adultry, considering
her religion! 

As a muslim how could we be neutral about this? Aren't we, by allowing this
kind of marriage to takeplace, encouraging them to commit adultry? And in
that case don't we share the act of commiting sin? Practically this marriage
can only take place when the female party doesn't care about here religion,
so what is the point to require she must be "ahl-e ketaab" ?!!!

The whole issue is still hard to understand for me! As a Shi'at muslim, I
know that this is allowed, but when it is about explanation I do not see, or
understand, much. I hope you can shed some light on it for me to be able to
grasp the idea here.

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Answer:

It is important to realise two things here. The first is that both Nikah
(permanent) and Mut'a (fixed-term) marriages are recognised as solemn
contracts by Islam. The respect and protection for the women by Sharia is
there in both cases. Therefore to the Christian or Jew both marriages should
be viewed in identical fashion. If they considered that a female is
committing adultery in Mut'a with a Muslim man, then they would have the
same view about a similar relationship in Nikah. 

As for the point about sharing in committing the sin, that only applies when
we encourage someone to break the Islamic Sharia. The issue would also arise
if the marriage was forced which is why willing consent of both female and
male is a requirement for the validity of the contract.

I have answered in greater detail about the Mut'a in a separate answer about
the relevance of Mut'a in society today.

Wasalaam

Asgharali M M Jaffer