blank

CAN WE BE TRANSGENDERED / TRANSSEXUAL PERSONS AND STILL BE CHRISTIANS AND CHILDREN OF GOD?

By Cheryl/Harold Jenkins

August 11, 1997

God is LOVE and He created us in His image both male and female Genesis|1:27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.:

Psalms|139:13 For thou hast possessed my reins: thou hast covered me in my mother's womb.

139:14 I will praise thee; for I am fearfully and wonderfully made: marvellous are thy works; and that my soul knoweth right well. |139:15 My substance was not hid from thee, when I was made in secret, and curiously wrought in the lowest parts of the earth.139:16 Thine eyes did see my substance, yet being unperfect; and in thy book all my members were written, which in continuance were fashioned, when as yet there was none of them

I stand open to any discussion of the following based on the Word of God and if it is done in the spirit of love. If I could have been born without this in my life believe me, I would have preferred it.

I hope that this letter can help my Christian friends to understand why I believe I can be a CHRISTIAN and still be a TRANSGENDERED person. This letter deals mainly with the New Testament and the KJV of the bible. To all my family and Christian friends I wish for you God's Love.

I do not write to cause any discomfort for anyone or challenge the Word of God, only to give my reasons for believing the way I do. For my family and friends that say that I can be delivered from being the way I am if only I will surrender my life completely to the Lord. I reply that I have surrendered my life to the Lord and have been filled with the Holy Spirit. I have asked for deliverance more than once. Yes God can deliver me if it is "His" will. When I am told that I do not have the desire to be delivered and that I am condemned to hell, I reply that sometimes the things that we want and think are right and good are not always Gods will and plan. Paul tells us in 2 Corinthians|12:7 And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure. 12:8 For this thing I besought the Lord thrice, that it might depart from me. 12:9 And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me. 12:10 Therefore I take pleasure in infirmities, in reproaches, in necessities, in persecutions, in distresses for Christ's sake: for when I am weak, then am I strong. Paul went before the Lord three times asking for deliverance from his affliction and the answer given to him was that the Lords grace was sufficient. Paul then accepted his thorn in the flesh. Does Paul's lack of deliverance mean that he was not a Christian and in the will of God? We aren't told what Paul's thorn was, could it have been mine?

I use the following references of I Cor. 7: 6-12 for a point of reference, please take note of the bold type. While it does not directly relate to what I am trying to say about myself, it does have a great importance to me.

Question? If I were to of written, I Cor., and told you that all I have written was the inspired Word of God, (2 Timothy|3: 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:) and you believed in the Word and what I had written as being the truth and inspired of God, and then found some of what I wrote was translated as to having differing meanings in different translations of the Word, would you not ask questions what was meant? If I further told you in (1 Cor. |7:6

But I speak this by permission, and not of commandment. |7:7 For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that. |7:8 I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, It is good for them if they abide even as I. |7:9 But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn. |7:10 And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: |7:11 But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife. |7:12 But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.) would not my use of I and not the Lord cause you some concern?

This brings me to the passage in KJV of I Cor. 6:9, and the word effeminate. In the NIV version of the bible the word is not used. Given the omission of or different meaning of the word I ask what was Paul really saying? Was it the Lords words or Paul's, given in I Cor. 7 he refers to I and not the Lord. I question this not because I am trying to justify myself as a Christian who happens to be transgendered. But rather than the church is using the KJV translation to say that I am living in sin.

The Word says in: Romans|3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

John|3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

John|3:17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. 3:18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

John|12:44 Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that sent me. |12:45 And he that seeth me seeth him that sent me.

|12:46 I am come a light into the world, that whosoever believeth on me should not abide in darkness. |12:47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world. |12:48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day. |12:49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. |12:50 And I know that his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.

Romans|2:11 For there is no respect of persons with God.

Is it right to judge and condemn me and others like me based on ONE word in the Bible in only ONE place and used only ONCE? The word "effeminate" is only found in I Corinthians 6:9 and it is not translated the same in all the different translations. I find it very interesting that different translations of the bible use the same words or words with the same meanings for the sins as listed in the Ten Commandments and the laws as given to the prophets of old (neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor thieves, nor covetous). Why then is there this conflict concerning the word "effeminate" as found in I Cor. 6:9 in the KJV of the bible?

If we are to interpret the KJV of I Cor. 6:9 to mean a man who believes he should have been born a woman is "effeminate" and we condemn him based on only this one word. Then what do we do with those transgendered persons who happen to be women who believe they should have been born a man? (Yes there are really women who feel that way).

The main theme of I Cor. 6 is Paul admonishing the Corinthians for having matters against one and other and taking the issues of the law before the unrighteous (or non believers), not the admonishment of the "effeminate." Paul is using verses 9&10 to define the unrighteous and that the unrighteous will not enter heaven.

What does effeminate mean? According the Webster dictionary: effeminate 1: having feminine qualitites untypical of a male, not mainly in appearance or manner 2: marked by an unbecoming delicacy or overrefinement. qualitites: a general term applicable to any trait or characteristics whether individual or generic.

One last thought on the KJV translation of I Cor. 6:9. In the Greek in which we are told Paul wrote, the word translated as "effeminate" was "malakos" which means "soft." The word "malakos" is not translated as "effeminate" anywhere else in the Bible. It is the same word translated as "soft" in Matthew 11:8 "But what went ye out for to see? A man clothed in soft raiment? Behold, they that wear soft clothing are in kings' houses." The translation of "malakos" as "effeminate" seems very uncalled for. In KJV days, Elizabethan-era of literature, they believed women to be weak in their ability to control their passions. So I suppose the KJV translators are to be forgiven; "effeminate" did convey a sense of lack of moral determination then. Or did they have a problem with accepting transgendered people then as we do today?

Of course, today, "effeminate" males are those who don't adhere to the world's standard of male conduct, which includes being ruled by sexual lust, anger, etc. Quite ironic: a verse in a chapter that began by calling for moral control now can be used to show scorn for those who control themselves. Is there a lesson in the importance of careful translation here? Please remember the original Greek had *NO* implication of effeminacy.

Are we as Christian using the Scriptures to justify our own convictions and morals? All throughout history people have used the scriptures to justify their own fears and beliefs and sometimes with great error.

The issue with me and others like me is the gender identity that we have and not the sexual gratification we are assumed to have. The two are very different.

I have only touched here on just one part of what is going on in my life. There is so much more that needs to be said and understood. I pray that you can find the grace of God and courage to explore this further with me.

John|3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. |3:17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. |3:18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because

he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

God's Love for us is UNCONDITIONAL, through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Your friend in Christ,

Cheryl